If Schoenberg emancipated the dissonance, did Debussy emancipate the consonance?
Even if the answer isn’t yes, this strikes me as an interesting question. Schoenberg took dissonanct sonorities from late 19th-century German composers and, instead of continuning to treat them as elaborations of standard harmonies, he treated them as sonorities in their own right — without need for “resolution.” Is this not what Debussy did as well — but with unaltered sonorities like dominant sevenths, ninths, open fifths and so forth?
More importantly: is this a good enough question to wake up this sleepy page. Here’s hoping.